CA-17/12/2025
Contents
1. BS-VI Vehicle
2. Jordan Museum
3. Thalassemia
4. Dark-eyed Juncos
5. Mutual Fund Regulation
6. Discrepancies components – GDP
7. Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025
8. PFRDA (Exits and Withdrawals under the National Pension System) Amendment Regulations, 2025
9. Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)
10. Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)
11. Artemisinin
12. Project Mausam
13. Capacity Building for Service Providers (CBSP) Scheme
14. United Nations Alliance of Civilizations (UNAOC)
15. Bharat Ranbhoomi Darshan
16. Exercise Ekatha
BS-VI Vehicle
Why in news?
Delhi has imposed strict restrictions on non-BS-VI vehicles entering the city starting December 18, 2025, as part of measures to combat severe air pollution under GRAP stages III and IV. Only BS-VI compliant vehicles from outside Delhi are permitted, while Delhi-registered vehicles can operate regardless of standards, though those without valid PUC certificates face fuel denial.
Background
- Bharat Stage (BS) norms regulate vehicular emissions in India, modeled on European standards.
- Introduced in 2000 as “India 2000”; BS-IV in 2017; BS-VI leapfrogged directly from BS-IV to BS-VI in April 2020.
- BS-VI is equivalent to Euro-VI norms.
Key Features of BS-VI Norms
- Sulphur content in fuel: Reduced from 50 ppm (BS-IV) to 10 ppm (BS-VI).
- Emission reduction:
- Diesel vehicles emit 70% less NOx.
- Petrol vehicles emit 25% less NOx.
- Particulate matter (PM): Reduced by 80% in diesel vehicles.
- On-board diagnostics (OBD): Mandatory for real-time monitoring.
- Real Driving Emission (RDE) tests: Introduced in BS6 Phase-2 (2025).
Significance
- Environmental: Helps combat India’s severe air pollution crisis (12.5% of deaths linked to air pollution).
- Health: Reduces respiratory diseases, especially among children.
- Economic: Pushes automobile industry towards cleaner technology, though increases vehicle cost.
- Governance: Reflects India’s commitment to Paris Climate Agreement and sustainable development goals.
Challenges
- Higher vehicle costs due to advanced technology.
- Fuel infrastructure upgrades needed nationwide.
- Sudden bans (like in Delhi) disrupt commuters and raise equity concerns.
Why in news?
The Jordan Museum in Amman recently hosted Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his visit to Jordan, where Crown Prince Al-Hussein bin Abdullah II personally drove him there in a symbolic gesture marking 75 years of bilateral ties.β
Key Facts about the Jordan Museum
- Location: Ras al-Ein district, Amman, Jordan
- Established: 2014
- Type: National museum, archaeological and art museum
- Significance: Largest museum in Jordan, preserving the country’s cultural heritage
- Permanent Exhibitions:
- Dead Sea Scrolls, including the Copper Scroll
- ΚΏAin Ghazal statues (9000 years old, among the earliest human statues ever made)
- Collections: Narrates Jordan’s history from the Paleolithic era (1.5 million years ago) to modern times
Why in news?
Recent reports highlight serious safety lapses in blood transfusions for thalassemia patients. In Madhya Pradesh's Satna district, four children aged 12-15 tested HIV positive after routine transfusions at a district hospital blood bank around four months ago, prompting an official probe into contaminated blood or needles.
What is Thalassemia?
- Definition: A genetic blood disorder where the body produces fewer healthy hemoglobin proteins, resulting in fewer red blood cells (RBCs) and anemia.
- Cause: Mutations in the genes responsible for hemoglobin production.
- Impact: Reduced oxygen transport in the body, causing fatigue, weakness, and developmental issues.
Types of Thalassemia
- Alpha Thalassemia:
- Caused by defective alpha-globin genes inherited from both parents.
- Severity depends on the number of defective genes.
- Beta Thalassemia:
- Caused by defects in beta-globin genes.
- More common in India and the Mediterranean region.
Symptoms
- Mild cases: Growth issues, delayed puberty, bone abnormalities.
- Severe cases: Poor appetite, jaundice, dark urine, facial bone irregularities, enlarged spleen.
- General: Chronic fatigue, weakness due to anemia.
Treatment
- Blood transfusions: Regular transfusions to maintain hemoglobin levels.
- Iron chelation therapy: To remove excess iron from the body (e.g., deferoxamine, oral chelators).
- Bone marrow transplant: Potential cure in severe cases.
- Emerging therapies: Gene-editing methods like adenine base editing are being tested.
Government Initiatives
- National Mission to Eradicate Thalassemia: Union government pledged to eliminate thalassemia over the next 25 years.
- Screening programs: Mandatory premarital and prenatal screening in some states.
- Awareness campaigns: Conducted to reduce incidence through genetic counseling.
- Drug availability issues: Reports of shortages of deferoxamine in Delhi hospitals highlight challenges.
Why in news?
Recent news highlights their adaptations to urban environments and behavioral changes observed during the COVID-19 pandemic.
About
Dark-eyed Juncos (Junco hyemalis) are small, abundant sparrows of North America, often called “snowbirds” because they appear in large numbers during winter.
Key Facts about Dark-eyed Juncos
- Scientific Name: Junco hyemalis
- Order: Passeriformes
- Family: Passerellidae (New World sparrows)
- Conservation Status: Least Concern
- Nickname: “Snowbirds” – due to their winter migration patterns
Habitat & Distribution
- Found across North America, especially in Canada and western mountain forests during breeding season.
- In winter, they migrate southward, spreading across much of the continent, including suburban yards and woodland edges.
- Prefer forest floors, woodland edges, and open ground for foraging.
Ecological Importance
- Seed dispersal: By feeding on seeds and grains, they help in plant regeneration.
- Indicator species: Their abundance and migratory patterns reflect forest health and climate changes.
- Winter ecology: Their nickname “snowbirds” highlights their role in seasonal bird population dynamics.
Mutual Fund Regulation
Why in news?
SEBI's board meeting on December 17, 2025, focuses on key mutual fund reforms. Proposals include overhauling Total Expense Ratio (TER) definitions and brokerage limits to boost transparency and cut costs.β
About Meeting and Recent Reforms
- The meeting reviews mutual fund fee structures, including clearer TER guidelines and removal of the extra 5 basis points (bps) AMCs could previously charge.
- Brokerage rule changes aim for zero-tolerance on conflicts, whistleblower mechanisms, and Chief Ethics Officer roles.β
- SEBI cut maximum exit loads from 5% to 3% in September, with most schemes already at 1-2%. MF-Lite eased compliance for passive funds like index funds and ETFs from March.
- From January 2026, REIT investments by mutual funds count as equity-oriented.β
Legal Framework
- SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations, 1996 – the primary legislation governing mutual funds in India.
- Objective: protect investors, promote development, and regulate the securities market.
Structure of Mutual Funds (as per SEBI)
- Sponsor – establishes the fund and seeks SEBI approval.
- Trustee – holds assets in fiduciary capacity, ensures compliance.
- Asset Management Company (AMC) – manages investments professionally.
- Custodian – safeguards securities and ensures settlement.
Key SEBI Guidelines
- Registration: Only SEBI-approved sponsors can launch mutual funds.
- Scheme Categorization: Standardized categories (equity, debt, hybrid, etc.) for comparability.
- Disclosure Norms: Mandatory offer documents, risk-o-meters, portfolio disclosures.
- Valuation Rules: Uniform methods for pricing securities.
- Expense Regulation: Total Expense Ratio (TER) capped; SEBI recently proposed reducing TER by 15–25 basis points.
Discrepancies components – GDP
Why in news?
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) proposes eliminating the 'discrepancies' component from GDP estimates as part of revising the base year to 2022-23, with the new series launching on February 27, 2026, and full back series by February 2027. This addresses persistent mismatches between production (value-added) and expenditure approaches in GDP calculation.β
About GDP discrepancies
- GDP discrepancies arise in India's national accounts due to differences between production (or income) approach estimates and expenditure approach estimates.
- These mismatches stem from varying data sources, coverage, valuation methods, and time lags in reporting.
- The resulting gap is captured as the "discrepancies" component under the expenditure side, which is deemed less accurate.β
Understanding GDP Components
India’s GDP can be measured in two ways:
- Production/Output Method: Value of goods and services produced.
- Expenditure Method: Sum of consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports.
Ideally, both should match. But in practice, mismatches occur due to data limitations, timing differences, and estimation methods. This mismatch is recorded as “discrepancies” in GDP accounts.
Causes of Discrepancies
- Discrepancies occur because production-side GDP sums value added across sectors like agriculture and manufacturing, while expenditure-side aggregates consumption, investment, and net exports.
- Positive values indicate higher production-side figures; negative ones show the reverse, as seen in Q2 FY26 (July-September 2025) with +βΉ1.63 lakh crore (3.3% of real GDP) but -βΉ2.46 lakh crore (-2.9% nominal GDP).β
Reform Measures
- MoSPI aims to use Supply-Use Tables (SUTs) aligned with System of National Accounts (SNA) to enforce accounting constraints, mapping production, imports, and consumption for zero discrepancies in final estimates.
- This enhances transparency but raises concerns over data quality from outdated surveys and potential judgement-based adjustments.
- Experts welcome it for better macroeconomic analysis, urging international best practices.β
Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025
IRDAI gains expanded enforcement powers through the Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025, recently passed by the Lok Sabha. This legislation shifts the regulator toward a proactive enforcement model, targeting insurers and intermediaries like agents, brokers, and TPAs.β
About the bill
- The Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025 amends the Insurance Act, 1938, Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956, and IRDAI Act, 1999 to modernize the sector, expand coverage, and strengthen oversight.
- Introduced in Lok Sabha on December 16, 2025 by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, it passed the Lok Sabha by December 15 amid discussions on insurance penetration growth.β
Key Objectives
- The Bill aims to boost insurance penetration toward "Insurance for All by 2047," ease compliance for companies, enhance policyholder data protection, and promote transparency in regulations.
- It supports flagship schemes like PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana and PM Suraksha Bima Yojana while addressing GST waivers on premiums.β
Major Provisions
- Permits 100% FDI in Indian insurance companies, up from prior limits, to attract global investment and accelerate sector growth.β
- Defines "class of insurance business" (life, general, health, re-insurance) and expands health insurance to cover accidents and travel.β
- Mandates insurance intermediary registration, tightens KYC/data rules, and requires electronic policies above thresholds.β
- Updates investment norms: life insurers invest 50% in government/approved securities; others 30%, with up to 15% in non-approved assets.β
- Raises penalties to βΉ10 crore max, empowers IRDAI with search/seizure and disgorgement powers, and bans common directors across competing insurers.β
Implications
- Policyholders gain better protection, cheaper premiums via competition, and wider choices, though composite licenses and lower capital norms remain omitted.
- Insurers face stricter governance but benefit from simplified mergers and LIC autonomy.
- The Bill aligns with digital economy needs, excluding SEZs/IFSCs with modifications.β
IRDAI's New Enforcement Powers
- Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) IRDAI gains authority for searches, seizures, and inspections ordered by the Chairperson when entities withhold documents, tamper records, or violate laws like illegal commissions.
- This aligns IRDAI's powers with SEBI's, targeting insurers and intermediaries such as agents, brokers, banks, NBFCs, web aggregators, TPAs, and surveyors.β
PFRDA (Exits and Withdrawals under the National Pension System) Amendment Regulations, 2025
Why in news?
The PFRDA (Exits and Withdrawals under the National Pension System) Amendment Regulations, 2025, notified on December 12, 2025, revise the 2015 regulations to enhance flexibility for NPS subscribers across government, non-government, and NPS-Lite categories. These changes apply to all NPS pension schemes, allowing deferred exits up to age 85 and introducing provisions for citizenship renunciation, missing subscribers, and scheme-specific rules.β
Government Subscribers
- Retirement exit age extended to 85 years, with minimum 40% corpus for annuity and the rest as lump sum or systematic withdrawals.
- Small corpus relaxations: full 100% lump sum if ≤ βΉ8 lakh;
- up to βΉ6 lakh lump sum if βΉ8-12 lakh;
- otherwise up to 60% lump sum.
- On resignation or death, 80% annuity applies unless corpus ≤ βΉ5-8 lakh for full withdrawal.β
Non-Government Subscribers
- Mandatory annuity reduced to 20% on exit after age 60, 15 years subscription, or retirement, allowing up to 80% lump sum withdrawal.
- Relaxations: 100% lump sum if ≤ βΉ8 lakh; up to βΉ6 lakh if βΉ8-12 lakh; 80% annuity on early voluntary exit unless ≤ βΉ5 lakh. Death allows 100% payout to nominees.β
Key New Provisions
- Full corpus withdrawal permitted on renunciation of Indian citizenship.
- For missing subscribers presumed dead, 20% interim relief to nominees after police report, with balance on court declaration.
- Partial withdrawals now cover loan settlements, up to 25% of contributions, with up to 4 times before 60 (every 4 years) or every 3 years after.β
Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS)
Why in news?
On December 10, 2025, 9,599 grievances were resolved nationwide, led by Uttar Pradesh with 873. The platform earned global recognition at the 2024 Pan-Commonwealth meeting.β
About CPGRAMS?
- Launched by: Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions.
- Technology: Developed by NIC (National Informatics Centre).
- Purpose: To provide a transparent, accountable, and efficient grievance redressal mechanism for citizens.
- Coverage: All Ministries/Departments of Government of India and State Governments are connected.
Key Features
- 24x7 Online Access: Citizens can lodge grievances anytime via pgportal.gov.in or mobile apps (including UMANG).
- Unique Registration ID: Each grievance gets a tracking number for monitoring progress.
- Role-Based Access: Ministries and departments have designated officers to handle grievances.
- Integration: Linked with President’s Secretariat, PMO, and other nodal agencies for escalations.
- Mobile-Friendly: Available through standalone apps and UMANG integration.
Usage Process
- Citizens register complaints online, which are routed to relevant Grievance Redressal Officers (GROs) for resolution, with options for feedback post-closure.
- Mobile apps facilitate voice-to-text filing in newer versions, and upcoming NextGen CPGRAMS (launched July 2025) adds WhatsApp, chatbots, and AI-driven auto-replies.β
Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)
Why in news?
Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is seeing major updates in global guidelines, earlyβprediction tools, and precisionβmedicine approaches as of 2024–2025.β
Global guideline and policy updates
- WHO issued its first global guideline on diabetes in pregnancy in 2025, covering type 1, type 2 and GDM with an endβtoβend framework for screening, pharmacologic treatment, monitoring and healthβsystem readiness.β
- The guideline positions metformin (alone or with insulin) as a firstβline drug when lifestyle therapy fails in GDM and type 2 diabetes in pregnancy, and calls for structured ultrasoundβbased fetal monitoring and selective early HbA1c use.β
Screening and classification advances
- Recent reviews emphasise “early GDM” (eGDM), defined as hyperglycaemia detected before 20 weeks that is not overt preβexisting diabetes, noting that 30–50% of women normalize by 24–28 weeks but still carry higher adverse outcome risk.β
- The Australasian Diabetes in Pregnancy Society (ADIPS) 2025 consensus recommendations update criteria for screening, diagnosis and classification of hyperglycaemia in pregnancy, reflecting new evidence and aiming for regionβwide standardisation.β
Burden and Indiaβspecific relevance
- The International Diabetes Federation estimates that about 23.3 million live births (15.6%) in 2024 were affected by some form of hyperglycaemia in pregnancy worldwide, underscoring GDM as a major global maternalβhealth issue.β
- Commentaries applying the 2025 WHO guideline to India cite GDM prevalence around 13% among Indian pregnant women and nearly 30% conversion to type 2 diabetes postpartum, arguing for universal or highly proactive screening and integrated NCD–maternal health models.β
About GDM
- Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) is hyperglycemia diagnosed or developing during pregnancy in women without prior diabetes.
- It arises from pregnancy-induced insulin resistance, primarily due to placental hormones like human placental lactogen, combined with pancreatic β-cell dysfunction that limits insulin secretion.β
Causes and Risk Factors
- Placental hormones increase insulin resistance to prioritize fetal glucose supply, but in GDM, maternal β-cells fail to compensate adequately, leading to elevated blood glucose.
- Risk factors include obesity, advanced maternal age, family history of diabetes, and prior GDM.
- This mirrors type 2 diabetes pathophysiology but is pregnancy-specific.β
Diagnosis
- Screening typically occurs at 24-28 weeks via a 75g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), with cutoffs like fasting ≥92-126 mg/dL or 2-hour ≥140 mg/dL indicating GDM.
- Earlier testing applies for high-risk cases, such as at the first prenatal visit.β
Management
- First-line treatment involves medical nutrition therapy (diet) and exercise; insulin is added if targets aren't met, as it doesn't cross the placenta.
- Oral agents like metformin may be considered in some guidelines, but insulin remains preferred.β
Risks and Prognosis
- Untreated GDM raises risks of macrosomia, neonatal hypoglycemia, preeclampsia, and cesarean delivery; women face 7-fold higher type 2 diabetes risk postpartum.
- Treatment reduces complications, with postpartum OGTT screening recommended at 4-12 weeks.β
Artemisinin
Why in news?
Artemisinin is in the news mainly for two opposite trends: reassuring data from some regions and growing concern about resistance in others. It also features in discussions on next-generation malaria drugs that may eventually supplement or replace artemisinin-based therapies.
About the trends
- A recent genetic surveillance study from Iran reported that malaria parasites there do not carry Kelch13 (K13) mutations known to confer artemisinin resistance, suggesting that artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) remain highly effective in that region.
- This reassures policymakers that current treatment protocols can continue, while underlining the need for ongoing molecular surveillance to catch any emergence of resistance early.β
- At the same time, global reports highlight evidence of partial resistance to artemisinin derivatives in multiple African countries, where parasites clear more slowly from patients’ blood but ACTs still cure most cases if the partner drug remains effective.
- The World Health Organization continues to recommend ACTs as first- and second-line treatment for uncomplicated malaria, stressing that regular therapeutic efficacy studies are essential to track both artemisinin and partner-drug performance.β
New malaria treatments beyond artemisinin
- Drug-development news has focused on next-generation therapies designed to work even when parasites show artemisinin resistance.
- A large Phase III trial of a new combination, KLU156 (ganaplacide plus lumefantrine), showed cure rates above 99% and activity against parasites with K13 mutations linked to artemisinin resistance,
- It offeres a promising future alternative to standard ACTs.β
About Artemisinin
Artemisinin is a powerful antimalarial drug derived from the sweet wormwood plant (Artemisia annua), discovered in the 1970s and still central to malaria treatment today.
Origin and Discovery
- Source: Extracted from the leaves of Artemisia annua, also known as sweet wormwood.
- Discovery: Identified in the 1970s by Chinese scientist Tu Youyou, whose work earned her the 2015 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine.
- Traditional Roots: The plant had been used in Chinese medicine for centuries to treat fevers, which guided modern scientific exploration.
Medical Use
- Primary Role: Artemisinin and its derivatives (artesunate, artemether, dihydroartemisinin) are frontline treatments for malaria, especially caused by Plasmodium falciparum.
- Mechanism: It works by producing free radicals inside malaria parasites, damaging their proteins and membranes, leading to parasite death.
- Administration: Often used in Artemisinin-based Combination Therapies (ACTs) to prevent resistance and improve effectiveness.
Global Importance
- Malaria Control: Artemisinin-based therapies have saved millions of lives worldwide, especially in Africa and Asia.
- Resistance Concerns: Recent studies show emerging resistance in parts of Africa, raising alarms for global health.
- WHO Guidelines: ACTs remain the gold standard, but monitoring resistance is critical for future strategies.
Why in news?
Recently the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) hosted a National Workshop in New Delhi to refine Project Mausam's thematic framework, involving experts on cultural, maritime, and heritage aspects.
About Project Mausam
Project Mausam is a cultural initiative by India's Ministry of Culture, launched in 2014, to revive historical maritime ties across the Indian Ocean region. It focuses on monsoon-driven cultural, economic, and religious exchanges among 39 countries bordering the ocean. The project emphasizes reconnecting nations through shared heritage beyond modern borders.β
Core Objectives
- The initiative seeks to document diverse interactions via archaeological and historical research, linking coastal centers to hinterlands.
- It promotes transnational UNESCO World Heritage nominations, such as Chola routes in Southeast Asia and Buddhism's spread via land-sea paths.
- Additional goals include filling gaps in World Heritage sites and fostering sustainable tourism and cross-cultural cooperation.β
Implementation Details
- Led by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) with support from Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA) and the National Museum, the project received funding extensions up to 2020 and 2023.
- India engaged countries like Bangladesh, Indonesia, Oman, and UAE, though progress has been mixed amid geopolitical tensions, including China's Maritime Silk Road counter-efforts.
Strategic Context
- Project Mausam counters China's rising influence in the Indian Ocean by leveraging soft power through cultural narratives.
- It highlights monsoon winds ("mausam") that enabled ancient trade in spices, textiles, and ideas, spreading religions like Buddhism and Hinduism.β
Distinction from Mission Mausam
- Note that Project Mausam differs from the Ministry of Earth Sciences' Mission Mausam, which focuses on advanced weather forecasting technologies like radars, satellites, and AI-driven models.β
Capacity Building for Service Providers (CBSP) Scheme
Why in news?
A 2025 third-party evaluation by the Quality Council of India (QCI) praised the scheme's impact on strengthening India's tourism workforce and recommended its continuation.
About CBSP
The Capacity Building for Service Providers (CBSP) Scheme, launched by Ministry of Tourism in 2009-10, targets skill development in the tourism and hospitality sectors, particularly for unorganized workers like dhaba staff, taxi drivers, and tourist guides.β
Objectives
- The scheme upgrades service skills through short training programs (4-6 days) covering hygiene, cooking techniques, communication, first aid, and tourism awareness
- It enhances tourist experiences nationwide, including rural and tribal areas.
- It promotes outcomes like employment, self-employment, and further education in hospitality.β
Key Programs
- Hunar Se Rozgar Tak (HSRT): Focuses on skill-based job placements.
- Entrepreneurship Programme (EP): Trains individuals to start tourism ventures.
- Skill Testing & Certification (ST&C): Certifies existing workers for re-skilling.
- Tourism Awareness Programme (TAP): Builds community participation in tourism.β
Implementation
- Training occurs via Institutes of Hotel Management (IHMs), Food Craft Institutes (FCIs), state tourism bodies, and private agencies, either on-site or at institutes, with funds reimbursed post-document submission.
- Since inception, it has trained over 643,000 people, leading to 84,000+ placements; a 2025 Quality Council of India evaluation recommended its continuation.β
Quality Council of India (QCI)
- The Quality Council of India (QCI) is an autonomous, non-profit organization established in 1997 as a public-private partnership to promote quality standards across economic and social sectors.
- QCI creates mechanisms for independent third-party assessments of products, services, and processes to propagate quality standards in areas like education, healthcare, environment, governance, and infrastructure.
- It leads a nationwide quality movement via the National Quality Campaign, empowering citizens and enterprises to adopt standards for national competitiveness.
- Governed by a 38-member council with equal representation from government, industry, and consumers, QCI's Chairman is appointed by the Prime Minister.
- It operates as India's National Accreditation Body (NAB) through boards like NABCB for certification bodies, focusing on global standards adherence.
United Nations Alliance of Civilizations (UNAOC)
Why in news?
The United Nations Alliance of Civilizations (UNAOC) recently held its 11th Global Forum in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, on December 14-15, 2025, marking its 20th anniversary. The event focused on advancing dialogue in a multipolar world amid rising divisions, extremism, and intolerance.
Key Outcomes
- The Riyadh Declaration charts UNAOC's future, including new 2026 partnerships and a 2027-2031 action plan targeting AI disinformation, migration, hate speech, and peace initiatives like the "Alliance for Peace."
- The stressed was on preventive diplomacy and combating discrimination based on faith or ethnicity.β
- India reaffirmed its "Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam" ethos of global harmony at the event.
- While countries like Kazakhstan, Azerbaijan, and Uzbekistan announced partnerships, including joint projects on cultural tolerance.β
About UNAOC
- The United Nations Alliance of Civilizations (UNAOC) promotes intercultural and interreligious dialogue to counter extremism and polarization.
- Launched in 2005, it emphasizes mutual respect between cultures, particularly bridging divides between Western and Islamic societies.β
Objectives
- Secretariat based in New York, USA, UNAOC galvanizes action against extremism through inclusive societies where diversity strengthens cohesion.
- It addresses polarization via practical programs in key areas, fostering global cooperation on shared challenges like security and development.β
Focus Areas
- Youth: Engages young leaders through forums, Dialogue Cafés, and global movements.
- Education: Promotes curricula on tolerance and cultural understanding.
- Media: Counters hate speech and builds narratives of unity.
- Migration: Supports integration and reduces xenophobia.
- Women as Peacemakers: Empowers women in conflict resolution.β
Why in news?
Recently, Sikkim's Chief Minister opened Cho La and Dok La passes under Bharat Ranbhoomi Darshan initiative on December 14, 2025, aligning with the Vibrant Villages Programme.β
About Bharat Ranbhoomi Darshan
- Bharat Ranbhoomi Darshan is a flagship initiative by India's Ministry of Defence and Ministry of Tourism to promote battlefield and border tourism.
- It opens historically significant military sites, previously restricted due to strategic reasons, to civilians for educational and heritage visits.β
Key Sites and Coverage
- Sites span states like Jammu & Kashmir (11), Ladakh (5), Sikkim (7), Arunachal Pradesh (21), and others, including Galwan Valley, Doklam, and Battle of Longewala.
Objectives and Impact
- The program fosters patriotism, boosts border economies, and highlights armed forces' sacrifices while maintaining security.
- It integrates with Incredible India campaigns for sustainable tourism development in remote areas.β
Why in news?
The 8th edition of Exercise Ekatha in 2025 occurred in Maldives from mid-November to December 17, hosted at MNDF Central Area Command, Kadhdhoo, spanning 30 days of intense drills between Indian MARCOS and MNDF Marine Corps.
About
- Exercise Ekatha is an annual bilateral maritime exercise between Indian Navy and Maldives National Defence Force (MNDF), established in 2017.β
Key Objectives
- It focuses on enhancing interoperability in diving operations, special missions, and asymmetric warfare through joint training.
- Activities include combat diving, boarding operations, firing drills, demolition, explosive handling, and heli-borne exercises.β
Strategic Importance
This exercise strengthens maritime security ties in the Indian Ocean Region, supports India's SAGAR vision, and builds capacity against non-traditional threats amid shared sea lanes.
Question & Answer
Question 1. The Sabka Bima Sabki Raksha (Amendment of Insurance Laws) Bill, 2025, significantly enhances the regulatory authority of IRDAI. Which power granted under the amendment brings IRDAI's enforcement capability closer to that of SEBI?
Select your answer:
A) The power to determine premium rates for all health insurance policies.
B) The authority to order searches, seizures, and disgorgement of illegal gains.
C) The right to appoint the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of private insurers.
D) The exclusive mandate to review GST implications on insurance products.
Explanation: (B)
The Bill grants IRDAI powers for searches, seizures, and disgorgement of funds, powers traditionally associated with market regulators like SEBI, significantly strengthening its proactive enforcement model against intermediaries and insurers.
Question 2. The United Nations Alliance of Civilizations (UNAOC) recently held its Global Forum. Which core principle, often articulated by India, aligns with the UNAOC's mandate to foster global harmony and bridge societal divides?
Select your answer:
A) Collective Security Doctrine
B) Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam
C) Multipolar Non-Alignment
D) Democratic Peace Theory
Explanation: (B)
India reaffirmed its ethos of 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' (The world is one family) at the UNAOC forum, aligning perfectly with the organization's goals of promoting intercultural dialogue and combating intolerance.
Question 3. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is moving to eliminate the 'discrepancies' component in GDP estimation. This adjustment primarily addresses the mismatch between which two primary methods of GDP calculation?
Select your answer:
A) Value Added Method and Income Method
B) Production Method and Expenditure Method
C) Consumption Method and Investment Method
D) Sectoral Output Method and Final Demand Method
Explanation:(B)
GDP discrepancies arise specifically from the mismatch between the estimates derived from the production (or value-added) approach and the expenditure approach, which is resolved by using Supply-Use Tables (SUTs) for accounting constraints.
Question 4. The Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is being upgraded to its 'NextGen' version. Which of the following new features is characteristic of this advanced platform?
Select your answer:
A) Mandatory physical presence of the complainant before the Grievance Redressal Officer (GRO).
B) Integration with platforms like WhatsApp and use of AI-driven auto-replies.
C) Limiting access only to registered users with specific state government employee IDs.
D) Shifting the development responsibility entirely from NIC to the Ministry of Finance.
Explanation:(B)
The NextGen CPGRAMS platform, launched recently, includes modern digital integrations such as WhatsApp access and AI-driven automatic responses to enhance citizen access and speed up initial processing.
Question 5. Exercise Ekatha is a bilateral maritime drill conducted between India and which nation, primarily aimed at enhancing interoperability in specialized diving and asymmetric warfare?
Select your answer:
A) Sri Lanka
B) Maldives
C) Mauritius
D) Seychelles
Explanation:(B)
Exercise Ekatha is the annual bilateral exercise between the Indian Navy (MARCOS) and the Maldives National Defence Force (MNDF), crucial for maritime security cooperation in the IOR.
Question 6. SEBI is proposing reforms concerning the Total Expense Ratio (TER) for Mutual Funds. What is the primary intent behind regulating and potentially lowering the maximum TER?
Select your answer:
A) To increase the fee structure for Asset Management Companies (AMCs) to encourage better governance.
B) To mandate quarterly distribution of capital gains to retail investors.
C) To reduce the net cost borne by investors, thereby enhancing transparency and returns.
D) To shift the regulatory oversight of debt funds entirely from SEBI to RBI.
Explanation: (C)
The primary goal of reforming TER guidelines is to boost transparency and reduce the operating costs for investors, which directly translates into higher net returns for the unit holders.
Question 7. The Dark-eyed Junco, often nicknamed 'Snowbirds' due to its seasonal presence, is ecologically significant in North America primarily because it serves as an indicator species for which aspect of the environment?
Select your answer:
A) Ocean Acidification Levels
B) Forest Health and Climate Change Indicators
C) Groundwater Salinity
D) Stratospheric Ozone Depletion
Explanation: (B)
The Dark-eyed Junco's abundance and migratory patterns reflect the overall health of forest ecosystems and are thus used by ecologists as an indicator species for environmental changes, including climate shifts.
Question 8. In the context of India's Bharat Stage (BS) emission norms, which of the following statements accurately reflects a key characteristic of the transition from BS-IV to BS-VI?
Select your answer:
A) The reduction in Sulphur content in fuel was less pronounced for diesel vehicles compared to petrol vehicles under BS-VI.
B) BS-VI norms are aligned with the stringent European Union's Euro-VI standards.
C) The mandate for On-Board Diagnostics (OBD) systems was introduced first during the BS-IV phase.
D) BS-VI primarily focused on reducing Carbon Monoxide (CO) emissions without significant changes to NOx levels.
Explanation: (B)
BS-VI norms are directly modelled on and equivalent to the stringent European Euro-VI standards. The transition involved significant reduction in sulphur (from 50 ppm to 10 ppm) and substantial cuts in NOx (70% for diesel, 25% for petrol) and PM in diesel vehicles. OBD became mandatory under BS-VI.
Question 9. The 'Bharat Ranbhoomi Darshan' initiative aims to open strategically significant military sites for civilian tourism. Which of the following is the primary objective of integrating this initiative with the Vibrant Villages Programme?
Select your answer:
A) To shift the primary budget allocation from defence modernization to tourism infrastructure.
B) To generate economic activity and foster patriotism in remote border areas.
C) To ensure all border passes remain permanently closed to civilian traffic except during designated visits.
D) To increase military recruitment by showcasing historical battle successes.
Explanation: (B)
The initiative links battlefield tourism with the Vibrant Villages Programme to boost local economies in border regions while simultaneously promoting national pride and highlighting the sacrifices of the armed forces.
Question 10. In the management of Thalassemia, Iron Chelation Therapy is critically important primarily because of which associated complication?
Select your answer:
A) It prevents the host body from developing antibodies against the transfused blood cells.
B) It counteracts the buildup of excess iron deposited in organs due to frequent blood transfusions.
C) It stimulates the bone marrow to produce functioning beta-globin chains.
D) It directly corrects the genetic mutation causing the hemoglobin deficiency.
Explanation: (B)
Patients with severe Thalassemia require frequent blood transfusions, leading to iron overload (hemosiderosis). Iron chelation therapy (like Deferoxamine) is necessary to remove this excess iron and prevent organ damage.
Question 11. Project Mausam, initiated by the Ministry of Culture, primarily aims to revive and document historical interactions across the Indian Ocean region. What factor is central to the cultural and economic exchanges this project seeks to highlight?
Select your answer:
A) The influence of early 20th-century European colonial trade routes.
B) Monsoon winds that historically facilitated transoceanic travel and trade.
C) The deployment of modern naval task forces for maritime security.
D) Standardization of currency and banking regulations across littoral states.
Explanation: (B)
Project Mausam literally means 'season' or 'weather' and specifically focuses on the historical cultural, economic, and religious exchanges that were enabled by the predictable patterns of the monsoon winds across the Indian Ocean.
Question 12. Under the PFRDA Exit Regulations Amendment, 2025, provisions have been introduced to offer enhanced lump sum withdrawal options for Government Subscribers upon exit with a 'small corpus'. What defines this 'small corpus' threshold for maximum lump sum benefit?
Select your answer:
A) If the corpus is less than βΉ5 lakh, 100% lump sum is allowed.
B) If the corpus is less than or equal to βΉ8 lakh, 100% lump sum is permitted.
C) If the corpus is between βΉ10 lakh and βΉ15 lakh, a 75% lump sum withdrawal is guaranteed.
D) Only subscribers exiting before the age of 60 are eligible for any corpus relaxation.
Explanation: (B)
The amendment specifies that government subscribers can withdraw 100% of the corpus as a lump sum if the total corpus upon exit is less than or equal to βΉ8 lakh.
Question 13. The Capacity Building for Service Providers (CBSP) Scheme focuses on skill upgrades within India's tourism sector. Which segment of the workforce is the scheme specifically designed to target for immediate skill enhancement?
Select your answer:
A) Academicians teaching Hospitality Management at university level.
B) The unorganized sector workers like taxi drivers, dhaba staff, and local guides.
C) Senior bureaucrats holding key positions in State Tourism Ministries.
D) Professionals involved in the Quality Council of India (QCI) evaluations.
Explanation: (B)
The CBSP scheme is explicitly targeted at skill development for service providers in the unorganized tourism and hospitality sector (e.g., drivers, guides, kitchen staff) through short training modules.
Question 14. Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM) carries a high risk of long-term complications for the mother. What is the primary long-term risk cited for women who experience GDM?
Select your answer:
A) Increased risk of Alpha Thalassemia in subsequent pregnancies.
B) Higher probability of developing Type 2 Diabetes postpartum.
C) Permanent impairment of pancreatic beta-cell function immediately after delivery.
D) Mandatory need for lifelong iron chelation therapy.
Explanation: (B)
Women who have GDM face a significantly increased risk (often cited as 7-fold higher) of developing chronic Type 2 Diabetes later in life, emphasizing the need for postpartum screening.
Question 15. The Jordan Museum, recently highlighted during a visit by the Indian PM, houses significant archaeological finds. Which of these artifacts is famously associated with the Jordan Museum and represents one of the earliest known human statues?
Select your answer:
A) The Rosetta Stone replica.
B) The Copper Scroll fragments.
C) The ΚΏAin Ghazal statues.
D) The Code of Hammurabi.
Explanation: (C)
The Jordan Museum prominently features the 9000-year-old ΚΏAin Ghazal statues, recognized as some of the earliest human statues ever discovered.
Question 16. Artemisinin, the basis of frontline malaria treatment, is derived from which plant, a discovery attributed to Nobel Laureate Tu Youyou?
Select your answer:
A) Cinchona officinalis (Source of Quinine)
B) Azadirachta indica (Neem)
C) Artemisia annua (Sweet Wormwood)
D) Gloriosa superba (Laxman Phal)
Explanation: (C)
Artemisinin is extracted from the leaves of Artemisia annua, commonly known as sweet wormwood, a discovery that revolutionized malaria treatment.
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