Daily Current Affairs 2025  

CA-07/12/2025


 Contents
  1. Onchocerciasis
  2. IndiGo Flight Disruptions
  3. Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT)
  4. Shingles Disease
  5. Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme
  6. Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve
  7. Red-breasted Parakeet
  8. Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme
  9. Circular Economy in India’s Dairy Sector
  10. Supreme Court Mandates Written Grounds for All Arrests
 

Onchocerciasis
 
Why in news?
Niger has become the first African country verified by the World Health Organization (WHO) as free of onchocerciasis, also known as river blindness, marking a major milestone in global efforts against neglected tropical diseases.​
 

About
  • Onchocerciasis (river blindness) is a parasitic disease caused by the worm Onchocerca volvulus.
  • Transmitted to humans through repeated bites of infected female blackflies,(genus Simulium), which breed in fast‑flowing rivers and streams.​
  • Not spread directly from person to person; the blackfly is essential for transmission.​
  • Endemic mainly in rural areas of sub‑Saharan Africa, with smaller foci in Latin America and Yemen.​
  • One of the leading infectious causes of blindness worldwide, after trachoma.​
  • Intense itching, rashes, thickening, depigmentation (“leopard skin”), eye inflammation, visual impairment, and progressive damage lead to permanent blindness (hence “river blindness”).​
  • Symptoms are mainly due to inflammatory reactions against dying microfilariae (larval worms) in skin and eye tissues and causes chronic disability
Diagnosis and treatment
  • Diagnosis is usually by finding microfilariae in skin snips, eye examination, or detection of nodules; rapid tests and serology may support diagnosis.​
  • Main treatment is ivermectin (periodic mass drug administration) which clears microfilariae and reduces transmission, though it does not reliably kill adult worms.​
Prevention and control
  • Community‑directed mass drug administration with ivermectin in endemic areas is the cornerstone of control and elimination programmes.​
  • Vector control (reducing blackfly populations near rivers) and sustained surveillance are used in some regions to support elimination efforts.​
 
 
 
IndiGo Flight Disruptions
 
Why in news?
IndiGo, India's largest airline, faced massive flight disruptions starting December 1, 2025, due to failure to adapt to new Flight Duty Time Limitation (FDTL) rules, resulting in over 2,100 cancellations by December 5 and ongoing issues as of December 8.​
 

Root Causes of the Disruptions
  • New FDTL Norms: The primary trigger for the crisis was the rollout of new FDTL norms, which mandate stricter rest requirements and tighter night-duty limits for pilots. These rules, implemented in phases from July 2025, significantly reduced crew availability across airlines.
  • Crew Shortages: IndiGo, in particular, was severely affected due to an acute crew shortage. This was attributed to the airline's lean staffing strategy, a hiring freeze despite ample notice, pilot pay freezes, and non-poaching agreements, as alleged by pilot associations.
  • Operational Vulnerability: IndiGo's large-scale, high-frequency network, coupled with heavy red-eye schedules, made it uniquely vulnerable to the reduced duty hours and restricted night landings introduced by the new FDTL rules.
Impact and Consequences
  • Passenger Disruption: Thousands of passengers were stranded, leading to chaos at airports, with many reporting significant distress, financial losses, and missed opportunities.
  • Regulatory Action: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) issued a show-cause notice to IndiGo's CEO, citing significant lapses in planning, oversight, and resource management. The Ministry of Civil Aviation has also been actively monitoring the situation and directing airlines to stabilize operations.
  • Economic Impact: The disruptions led to a surge in airfares on rival carriers, prompting the government to cap fares. The Indian Railways also added special trains to help stranded passengers.
  • Reputational Damage: The crisis has raised questions about IndiGo's operational planning and management, impacting its reputation as a business school case study for profitable, lean operations.
Key Issues
  • Governance and Regulation: The role of the DGCA in implementing and enforcing aviation regulations, and its response to the crisis. The importance of proactive regulatory oversight and the balance between safety standards and operational efficiency.
  • Economic Policy: The impact of regulatory changes on the aviation sector, market dynamics, and consumer welfare. The government's intervention in capping fares and managing the crisis.
  • Corporate Governance and Management: IndiGo's strategic decisions, including staffing, planning, and preparedness for regulatory changes. The allegations of anti-competitive practices by pilot unions.
  • Consumer Rights: The rights of passengers in case of flight cancellations and delays, as per DGCA guidelines and the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
  • Infrastructure Development: The case also highlights the strain on India's aviation infrastructure and the need for robust planning to support rapid growth.
 
 
 
Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT)
 
Why in news?
SEBI granted in-principle approval on December 4-5, 2025, to the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)'s Raajmarg Infra Investment Trust (RIIT) as an InvIT, providing six months to meet conditions like appointing directors and submitting financial statements before final registration. This step advances NHAI's highway asset monetization, targeting retail and domestic investors with transparent, high-quality instruments backed by national highways.
 

What are InvITs?
  • An InvIT is a collective investment scheme that allows individuals and institutional investors to invest directly in infrastructure projects.
  • These trusts pool money from investors to acquire and manage income-generating infrastructure assets, such as highways, toll roads, power plants, and gas pipelines.
  • The income generated from these underlying assets is then distributed to the unit holders (investors) on a regular basis.
Key Features and Structure
  • Regulator: InvITs are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014.
  • Structure: An InvIT is established as a trust and typically comprises four key parties:
  • Trustee: Registered with SEBI as debenture trustees, responsible for overseeing the InvIT's operations and ensuring compliance.
  • Sponsor: The entity that sets up the InvIT. Sponsors must meet certain net worth criteria and typically hold a minimum percentage of the InvIT's units for a specified period.
  • Investment Manager: Manages the assets and investments of the InvIT.
  • Project Manager: Responsible for executing infrastructure projects.
  • Investment: InvITs can invest in infrastructure assets either directly or through Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs). They can invest in completed, revenue-generating projects or, in some cases, projects under construction.
  • Listing: Units of InvITs are listed on stock exchanges, allowing for liquidity for investors.
  • Investment Amount: The minimum investment amount for an InvIT IPO can be Rs 10 lakh, making them suitable for high-net-worth individuals and institutional investors.
How InvITs Work
  • Fund Pooling: InvITs raise capital by issuing units to investors through initial public offerings (IPOs) or private placements.
  • Asset Acquisition: The pooled funds are invested in revenue-generating infrastructure projects or SPVs that hold these assets.
  • Revenue Distribution: The income generated from the infrastructure assets (e.g., tolls, user fees) is distributed to the unit holders, typically as dividends or interest payments. InvITs are generally required to distribute at least 90% of their net distributable cash flow to investors.
  • Monetization for Developers: InvITs allow infrastructure developers to monetize their completed assets, freeing up capital for new projects.
Benefits of InvITs
  • For Investors: Provides an opportunity to invest in large-scale infrastructure projects with a regular income stream and liquidity through stock exchange trading. The requirement for InvITs to invest at least 80% in completed, revenue-generating projects lowers investment risk.
  • For Developers: Facilitates asset monetization and access to capital for future infrastructure development.
InvITs vs. REITs
While similar in structure, InvITs and Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) differ in their underlying assets. InvITs invest in infrastructure assets, whereas REITs focus on income-generating real estate properties.


 
Shingles Disease
 
About
Shingles (herpes zoster) is a viral infection caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus—the same virus behind chickenpox—leading to a painful rash, typically after the virus lies dormant in nerve cells for years.​
 

Key Facts
  • Affects anyone who had chickenpox, but risk rises sharply after age 50, with about 1 in 3 people developing it lifetime.​
  • Main symptom: painful, blistering rash on one side of body (often torso, face, or waist as a stripe), with burning pain, tingling, fever, or fatigue.​
  • Triggers include weakened immunity (from age, stress, HIV, cancer, or meds), but exact cause often unclear.​
Complications
  • Postherpetic neuralgia (lingering nerve pain) in some cases; 1-4% hospitalized, mostly older adults or immunocompromised; fewer than 100 US deaths yearly.​
  • Rare issues: eye damage (emergency if near eyes), bacterial infections, pneumonia, or facial paralysis (Ramsay Hunt).​
Prevention & Treatment
  • Vaccine available to prevent shingles and reduce severity.​
  • Antivirals (if started early) shorten duration; cover rash to avoid spreading virus to chickenpox-naive people.​
 
 
 
Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme
 
Why in news?
On December 2, 2025, DRDO handed over seven indigenous technologies—such as long-life seawater batteries and systems in strategic, aerospace, naval, and electronic warfare domains—to the Indian Armed Forces under TDF. 
 

About Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme
The Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme is a flagship initiative by the Ministry of Defence (MoD), executed by DRDO, to promote self-reliance in defence technology under the 'Make in India' programme.​
 

Objectives
  • It supports industries, especially MSMEs and startups, in developing indigenous defence and dual-use technologies not available locally, including upgrading products, processes, and futuristic systems for Tri-Services needs.
  • The scheme bridges armed forces, research bodies, academia, and private sectors by funding proof-of-concept to prototype stages.​
Funding and Support
  • Funding covers up to 90% of project costs (capped at β‚Ή50 crore per project) via grants-in-aid, with flexible mechanisms like reimbursements or advances against bank guarantees across milestones.
  • Additional benefits include access to DRDO labs for testing, collaboration with DRDO scientists, and use of DRDO technologies.
  • Since 2016, β‚Ή260 crore has been allocated, with β‚Ή64.35 crore disbursed to 41 MSMEs and 20 startups by 2023.​
 
 

 
Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve
 
Why in news?
Rajasthan’s Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve (RVTR) in Bundi district is set for its first inter-state tiger translocation, with a tigress from Madhya Pradesh’s Pench Tiger Reserve successfully tranquilized, radio-collared, and monitored as of December 5-6, 2025. 
 

About
  • Location: Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve is situated in the southeastern part of Rajasthan, primarily in Bundi district, with extensions into Bhilwara and Kota districts.​
  • Notification: Declared a wildlife sanctuary in 1982 and notified as India's 52nd tiger reserve (Rajasthan's 4th) on May 16, 2022.​
  • Area: Covers 1,501.89 sq km total, with a core area of 481.90 sq km and buffer zone of 1,019.98 sq km.​
  • Geography: Features rugged, hilly terrain in the semi-arid biogeographic zone (4A), blending Vindhyan and Aravalli elements; the Mez River (Chambal tributary) flows through it.​
  • Connectivity: Acts as a crucial corridor linking Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (northeast) and Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve (south).​
  • Flora: Dominated by Dhok (Anogeissus pendula) trees, along with teak, Khair, Amaltas, saag, mahua, grasses, and shrubs.​
  • Fauna: Hosts tigers, leopards, sloth bears, Indian wolves, striped hyenas, golden jackals, wild dogs, chinkara, nilgai, chital, sambar, wild boar, Indian fox, ruddy mongoose, and diverse herpetofauna like Indian rock python.​
  • Conservation: Focuses on staff training, smart patrolling, anti-poaching, human-wildlife conflict mitigation, and eco-development; holds tourism potential in the Chambal circuit.
 
 

 
Red-breasted Parakeet
 
Why in news?
Two pairs of Red-breasted Parakeets (Psittacula alexandri) were spotted with a nest on the NIT-Patna campus in Bihar, marking the first confirmed sighting in the state. 

About
  • Scientific Name: Psittacula alexandri, also known as moustached parakeet.​
  • Size and Weight: Medium-sized parrot, 33-40 cm long (including tail), weighs 100-156 g.​
  • Distribution: Native to Southeast Asia (Thailand, Vietnam, Indonesia), parts of India, and Nepal; found up to 1500 m elevation.​
  • Habitat: Forests, woodlands, mangroves, cultivated areas, parks, and urban zones.​
  • Plumage (Adult Male): Green body, pink/red breast and belly, grey head with black facial markings, blue tail, red bill.​
  • Juvenile Features: Greener overall, muted colors, shorter tail, pale red bill.​
  • Diet: Seeds, fruits (figs, bananas), nectar, flowers, nuts, grains; forages communally.​
  • Behavior: Sociable in flocks of 6-50 (up to thousands at food sources), roosts communally, crop raider.​
  • Breeding: Clutch 3-4 eggs, December-April (varies), nests in tree cavities.​
  • Conservation: The species holds Near Threatened status on the IUCN Red List due to habitat.
 
 
 
Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme
 
About
  • The PMFME Scheme, launched by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries under Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan, supports the formalization and competitiveness of micro food processing units through financial, technical, and business aid.
  • It operates from 2020-21 to 2025-26 with a total outlay of Rs. 10,000 crore, targeting 2 lakh micro-enterprises via credit-linked subsidies and infrastructure development.​
  • Individual micro-units receive 35% credit-linked subsidy up to Rs. 10 lakh (10% beneficiary contribution).
  • SHGs get Rs. 4 lakh seed capital per group; FPOs/SHGs/cooperatives eligible for up to Rs. 3 crore for infrastructure.
  • 50% grants for branding/marketing to groups or SPVs. Funding shared 60:40 (Centre:States), with variations for special regions.​
Objectives
  • Enhance access to credit for micro-entrepreneurs, FPOs, SHGs, and cooperatives.
  • Promote integration into organized supply chains through branding, marketing, and common infrastructure like processing facilities and incubation centers.
  • Facilitate transition to formal frameworks with GST/FSSAI compliance, skill training, and ODOP (One District One Product) focus.​
Key Achievements
  • 1,62,744 loans sanctioned under credit-linked subsidy for individual micro enterprises, SHGs, FPOs, and others.​
  • Seed capital approved for 3,65,935 Self-Help Group (SHG) members at β‚Ή40,000 per member, up to β‚Ή4 lakh per SHG federation.​
  • 101 proposals sanctioned for Common Infrastructure Facilities with credit-linked subsidy up to β‚Ή3 crore per project.​
  • 76 incubation centres approved to aid enterprise development and technology adoption.​
  • 27 proposals sanctioned under Branding and Marketing support, providing up to 50% grant for groups like FPOs, SHGs, and cooperatives.​
 
 
 
Circular Economy in India’s Dairy Sector
 
Why in news?
  • India's dairy sector is adopting a circular economy model to transform waste like cattle dung into biogas (bio-CNG), organic fertilizers, and other value-added products, boosting farmer incomes by an estimated 20% over five years without increasing milk production.
  • This shift aligns with White Revolution 2.0, emphasizing resource efficiency, waste-to-wealth strategies, and diversification into products like milk powder, paneer, and nutraceuticals.
  • Banas Dairy in Gujarat serves as Asia's largest cooperative exemplar, with its β‚Ή24,000 crore turnover and integrated systems for bio-CNG production and fertilizer generation.​
Benefits and Impacts
  • Farmers gain additional income from by-products, reducing reliance on chemical fertilizers and fossil fuels while enhancing soil health and energy security.​
  • Women-led cooperatives in arid Gujarat demonstrate entrepreneurship, with direct bank transfers promoting financial inclusion.​
  • Environmental gains include lower methane emissions and carbon footprint reduction through manure management.​
Government Support
  • The Union Ministry of Cooperation provides finance, technology, and three new dairy cooperatives for activities like cheese, animal feed, and exports.
  • Aligns with national goals like Doubling Farmers’ Income, Atmanirbhar Bharat, and Mission LiFE.
  • Product diversification into nutraceuticals and specialty cheeses targets global markets.​
Challenges
  • Small dairies face barriers like high initial costs for biogas infrastructure, limited technological access, and training needs for waste management.
  • Logistics gaps in cold chains and regulatory issues for leather from naturally deceased cattle require public-private partnerships and skill programs.
  • Scaling demands dedicated NABARD funds and market linkages for exports via APEDA.​

 
 
Supreme Court Mandates Written Grounds for All Arrests
 
About
  • The Supreme Court of India has ruled that providing written grounds for arrest is a mandatory safeguard that must be followed in all arrest cases.
  • This significant judgment aims to strengthen the fundamental rights of individuals, particularly Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) and Article 22(1) (Protection against arrest and detention) of the Constitution.
Key Directives from the Supreme Court:
  • Written and Understandable Grounds: The grounds of arrest must be provided in writing and in a language that the arrestee can understand.
  • Time Limit for Written Grounds: While oral communication of grounds may be permissible in exceptional circumstances where immediate written communication is not possible, written grounds must be furnished within two hours before presenting the accused to a magistrate for remand proceedings.
  • Universal Application: This ruling applies to all offenses, including those under the new Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), and expands the constitutional safeguards beyond specific laws like the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA) or Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
  • Violation of Fundamental Rights: Failure to provide the arrestee with the grounds of arrest in writing is considered a violation of their fundamental rights.
This landmark decision ensures a balance between the constitutional rights of the arrested person and the operational needs of criminal investigations. It serves as a crucial step towards ensuring greater transparency and fairness in the arrest process.
 
 
 
 
 

Question and Answer

Question 1. Which of the following statements correctly describes Shingles (Herpes Zoster) disease?
 
Select your answer:
A) It is a bacterial infection primarily affecting the digestive system.
B) It is caused by the reactivation of the measles virus in adults.
C) It is a viral infection characterized by a painful, blistering rash, resulting from the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus.
D) Vaccination for chickenpox effectively prevents the initial infection, but there is no specific vaccine against Shingles itself.
 
Explanation:
Statement (a) is incorrect; Shingles is a viral infection. Statement (b) is incorrect; it is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. Statement (c) is correct. Statement (d) is incorrect; a specific vaccine is available to prevent shingles and reduce its severity, distinct from the chickenpox vaccine.
 

Question 2. Which of the following statements about Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve (RVTR) is/are correct?
1. It is located in the state of Rajasthan.
2. It was India's 52nd tiger reserve to be notified.
3. It serves as a crucial corridor linking Ranthambore Tiger Reserve and Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
 
Select your answer:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
 
Explanation:
All three statements are correct. Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve is situated in Rajasthan, primarily in Bundi district. It was notified as India's 52nd tiger reserve on May 16, 2022. It acts as an important corridor connecting Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (northeast) and Mukundara Hills Tiger Reserve (south).
 

Question 3. Neglected Tropical Diseases (NTDs) represent a diverse group of conditions that disproportionately affect vulnerable populations. Which of the following statements accurately reflects characteristics or challenges associated with NTDs?
1. They are primarily bacterial infections, easily treatable with short courses of antibiotics.
2. They often cause chronic disability, disfigurement, and contribute to poverty cycles.
3. Challenges include lack of public awareness, limited access to diagnosis and treatment, and inadequate funding for research.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
 
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. NTDs are caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses, bacteria, parasites, and fungi, and are not always easily treatable or cured with antibiotics. Statement 2 is correct. NTDs are known for causing long-term health issues and perpetuating poverty. Statement 3 is correct. These are significant challenges in the global fight against NTDs.
 

Question 4. The role of cooperative societies in India's economic development, particularly in sectors like dairy, is crucial for achieving goals like 'Doubling Farmers’ Income' and 'Atmanirbhar Bharat'. Which of the following best describes how such cooperatives contribute to these national objectives?
 
Select your answer:
A) By encouraging individual farmers to compete fiercely in a free-market environment.
B) By enabling farmers to collectively bargain, access markets, and undertake value-added processing.
C) By establishing government-controlled monopolies to regulate agricultural commodity prices.
D) By focusing solely on raw material production without investing in infrastructure or diversification.
 
Explanation:
Cooperatives empower farmers by aggregating their produce, facilitating collective bargaining for better prices, providing access to processing and marketing infrastructure, and enabling diversification into value-added products. This improves their income, reduces reliance on intermediaries, and contributes to self-reliance, aligning with the mentioned national objectives. Options (a) and (d) promote individual or limited approaches, while (c) misrepresents the nature of cooperatives.
 

Question 5. In the context of India's dairy sector adopting a circular economy model, which of the following is NOT a primary benefit or objective?
 
Select your answer:
A) Boosting farmer incomes through value-added by-products.
B) Reducing reliance on synthetic chemical fertilizers and fossil fuels.
C) Increasing the overall number of dairy animals to maximize raw milk production.
D) Mitigating methane emissions and reducing the carbon footprint.
 
Explanation:
The circular economy model in the dairy sector focuses on transforming waste into valuable resources (like biogas from cattle dung), thereby increasing farmer incomes, reducing reliance on chemical inputs, and mitigating environmental impact. These efforts align with resource efficiency, not necessarily with increasing the overall number of dairy animals to maximize raw milk production. In fact, it aims to boost income without necessarily increasing milk production volume.
 

Question 6. With reference to the Technology Development Fund (TDF) Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Defence aimed at promoting self-reliance in defence technology.
2. The scheme primarily supports large public sector defence undertakings and foreign collaborations.
3. It offers funding up to 90% of project costs, capped at a specific amount, to encourage indigenous development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
 
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The TDF Scheme is indeed a Ministry of Defence initiative for self-reliance. Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme primarily supports industries, especially MSMEs and startups, not large public sector undertakings or foreign collaborations. Statement 3 is correct. Funding covers up to 90% of project costs (capped at β‚Ή50 crore per project).
 
 
Question 7. Consider the Red-breasted Parakeet (Psittacula alexandri). Which of the following statements regarding this species is correct?
 
Select your answer:
A) It is endemic to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India.
B) Its IUCN Red List status is 'Least Concern' due to stable populations.
C) It is also known as the Moustached Parakeet and is native to parts of Southeast Asia and India.
D) It primarily inhabits cold, high-altitude coniferous forests.
 
Explanation:
Statement (a) is incorrect; it is not endemic to Andaman and Nicobar. Statement (b) is incorrect; its IUCN Red List status is 'Near Threatened' due to habitat loss. Statement (c) is correct; it is also known as the Moustached Parakeet and its distribution includes Southeast Asia, parts of India, and Nepal. Statement (d) is incorrect; it typically inhabits forests, woodlands, mangroves, and cultivated areas up to 1500m elevation.
 
 
Question 8. Consider the following statements regarding Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) in India:
1. InvITs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
2. They allow individuals and institutional investors to invest directly in income-generating infrastructure projects.
3. InvITs are generally required to invest at least 80% of their assets in projects under construction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 
Select your answer:
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only
 
Explanation:
InvITs are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014, not RBI. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct as InvITs pool money from investors to acquire and manage income-generating infrastructure assets. InvITs are generally required to invest at least 80% in completed, revenue-generating projects, not projects under construction. Statement 3 is incorrect.


Question 9. With reference to Onchocerciasis, also known as River Blindness, consider the following statements:
1. It is a viral infection primarily transmitted through contaminated water.
2. It is among the leading infectious causes of permanent blindness globally.
3. Community-directed mass drug administration with Ivermectin is a cornerstone of its control programs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
 
Explanation:
Onchocerciasis is a parasitic disease caused by the worm Onchocerca volvulus, not a viral infection. It is transmitted through repeated bites of infected female blackflies, not contaminated water. Statement 1 is incorrect. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as it is one of the leading infectious causes of blindness, and mass drug administration with Ivermectin is a key control strategy.
 

Question 10. In the context of India's civil aviation sector, which of the following best describes the primary role and responsibilities of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)?
 
Select your answer:
A) To manage airport infrastructure development and operations.
B) To set airfares and control ticket pricing for all domestic flights.
C) To ensure flight safety standards, regulate airworthiness, and oversee pilot licensing.
D) To operate government-owned airlines and facilitate their international expansion.
 
Explanation:
The DGCA is the regulatory body for civil aviation in India, primarily responsible for safety oversight. Its functions include enforcing flight safety standards, regulating airworthiness, investigating incidents, and overseeing personnel licensing (pilots, engineers). While it can intervene in market dynamics (like capping fares in crises), its primary role is not fare-setting, airport management, or airline operations.
 

Question 11. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme, consider the following statements:
1. The scheme is launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
2. It aims to provide credit-linked subsidies for individual micro food processing units and seed capital for Self-Help Groups (SHGs).
3. A core objective is to promote formalization and integration into organized supply chains, with a focus on 'One District One Product' (ODOP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
 
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The PMFME Scheme was launched by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. The scheme provides financial assistance through credit-linked subsidies and seed capital, and aims to formalize micro-enterprises and integrate them into supply chains with an ODOP focus.
 

Question 12. According to recent Supreme Court pronouncements concerning arrests in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Providing written grounds for arrest is a mandatory safeguard that applies to all arrest cases.
2. This ruling specifically expands constitutional safeguards to offenses under special laws like UAPA and PMLA only.
3. Failure to provide the arrestee with written grounds for arrest is considered a violation of their fundamental rights.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
 
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. The Supreme Court has mandated written grounds for arrest in all cases. Statement 2 is incorrect. The ruling explicitly states that it applies to all offenses, including those under the new Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), and expands constitutional safeguards beyond specific laws like UAPA or PMLA. Statement 3 is correct. The Court held that failure to provide written grounds of arrest is a violation of fundamental rights, particularly Article 21 and Article 22(1).

 
 

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